Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George F. Somsel" <gfsomsel AT juno.com>]

On Fri, 10 Sep 2004 12:33:54 -0500 "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
writes:
> George:
> 
> The Deuteronomist, i.e. the guy who wrote most of the book of 
> Deuteronomy, was Moses, who wrote by present guesstimation about 
> 1400 BC. The book of Chronicles was written after the Galut Babel, 
> about 5–400 BC. Unless Moses went into hiding and lived for over a 
> millennium, he, i.e. “the Deuteronomist”, did not author Chronicles, 
> someone else did. 
> 
> Secondly, Moses’ use of “the land” in Deuteronomy was almost 
> universally identified by its context as the land Israel was to 
> possess, written before Israel went up to possess it, previously 
> identified as Canaan; in contrast, the land in 1 Chronicles 7:21 is 
> not identified. The men were simply called, “men of Gath born in the 
> land”. Different people interpret that in different ways.
> 
> It sounds like your objection to my reading of the text is based on 
> modern philosophies, not linguistic or other grounds.
> 
> Karl W. Randolph.
> 
_________________

It makes no difference whether you call it the work of Moses (which any
reader who is not precommited to the proposition and who reads the text
carefully cannot accept) or the work of the Deuteronomist.  The fact is,
that's where the tendency appears.  I used to be committed to the Mosiaic
hypothesis, but found that it is untennable.   Your position is based
upon a refusal to EXAMINE THE FACTS which would reveal that a Mosaic
authorship is impossible.  You declare what scripture MUST BE then make
it conform to your conception.

Why do you continually use the AFFECTATION "Galut Babel"?  Does this
supposedly add something to the concept that "Babylonian Captivity" does
not contain?  

george
gfsomsel