Biblical Hebrew Forum

[GregStffrd AT aol.com]

I am not sure why this did not go through the first time.

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• From: GregStffrd AT aol.com
• To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
• Subject: Re: _)aSHER_ in Ex. 3:14 (was "I AM")
• Date: Fri, 4 May 2001 14:05:23 EDT

In a message dated 05/03/2001 8:56:55 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
dan.wagner AT netzero.net writes:

<< But for such a unique verbal name, should it be a surprise to find a
unique way of expressing it following _)aSHER_? >>


Maybe you can explain why such a unique, otherwise unknown use of 'aSHER
would be used instead of the more common Hebrew verbless clause?

It seems to me that the only trigger for even considering 'aSHER in this
light would be to further a preconceived view concerning 'aSHER as I AM,
hence, in line with Solomon Landers' observation about theological
motivations. And that is fine if you can establish your point, but in the
absence of even one other example of 'aSHER to offer in support of your view
I am sure you would agree that until you can establish your point about
'aSHER those views built upon the common understanding and use of 'EHYEH and
'aSHER are to be preferred, grammatically. Do you?

Greg Stafford

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