Biblical Hebrew Forum

[GregStffrd AT aol.com]

In a message dated 05/03/2001 8:56:55 PM Pacific Daylight Time, 
dan.wagner AT netzero.net writes:

<< But for such a unique verbal name, should it be a surprise to find a 
unique way of expressing it following _)aSHER_?  >>


Maybe you can explain why such a unique, otherwise unknown use of 'aSHER 
would be used instead of the more common Hebrew verbless clause?

It seems to me that the only trigger for even considering 'aSHER in this 
light would be to further a preconceived view concerning 'aSHER as I AM, 
hence, in line with Solomon Landers' observation about theological 
motivations. And that is fine if you can establish your point, but in the 
absence of even one other example of 'aSHER to offer in support of your view 
I am sure you would agree that until you can establish your point about 
'aSHER those views built upon the common understanding and use of 'EHYEH and 
'aSHER are to be preferred, grammatically. Do you?

Greg Stafford