Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Daniel Wagner" <dan.wagner AT netzero.net>]

----- Original Message ----- 
From: Trevor & Julie Peterson <speederson AT erols.com>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Wednesday, May 02, 2001 10:11 PM
Subject: RE: I AM


> It's an interesting suggestion, and one that I've never heard.  But I don't
> know that I'm sold on it just yet.  

Thanks for your comments. I'd not seen them when i posted my other follow-up.

> First, it seems like the standard way to
> identify oneself in BH is through a verbless clause:
> )a:NI or )aaNooKI + PN. 

OK.

> Granted, if He had said, )a:NI )eHYE, this would be
> potentially confused with the usual construction for a general present; but

It would seem strange to say it that way to me, but then we are dealing with 
something obviously unique in the HB. So how do we know what to expect?

> I suppose it's questionable whether anyone would have seriously expected a
> general present ("I exist as a general rule") used in an assertion of
> self-existence, so the oddity would probably have suggested some other
> meaning.  The follow-up instruction, which uses
> )eHYE as a fronted subject, would also help to clarify that it is
> functioning as a noun, rather than a verb. 

I think it clarifies that the name is not the entire clause, but only the 
)eHYE alone.

> For that matter, I would think a
> clearer statement on the order of the follow-up instruction would have
> sufficed to make the point.  I'm not saying your suggestion is out of the
> question, but you have to admit that it's an odd way to form a predication.

But this is part of my point. We are dealing with something unique, so thus 
how do *we* really know what to expect without parallels?

> Do you know of any other instances where )a:$eR is used this way?

Well, it's usage is so broad ... but no i can't. However, i can anticipate 
the possibility because of its broadness in function, as a sign of 
subordination. A verb would not be able to take a preposition, for example, 
whereas _)a:$eR_ can take one preceding a verb to subordinate the verbal 
concept or its subject. This is very common as i'm sure you know, but just as 
examples (with B) Judge 5:27; 17:8-9; Ruth 1:17; (with L) Lev. 27:24, Num. 
5:7, Job 12:6, Isa. 2:8; (w/ K too many.... ) Gen. 7:9, 16, 8:21, etc. 

Is it reasonable? Is there any reason why the alternate (traditional) 
interpretation should be preferred? Why did the LXX seem to take it as i am 
(see my other post)?

Thanks for any comments.

Dan Wagner

> 
> Trevor Peterson
> CUA/Semitics
> 
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Daniel Wagner [mailto:dan.wagner AT netzero.net]
> > Sent: Wednesday, May 02, 2001 2:59 PM
> > To: Biblical Hebrew
> > Subject: Re: I AM
> >
> [snipped]
> 
> > Rather, the name is simply "I
> > AM" and the _asher_ clause serves merely to subordinate. It would
> > not be appropriate to use an _)ETH_ as the sign of subordination
> > for the verb, nor could any preposition go before a verb. But
> > something had to show subordiation or rather identification of
> > the predicate, so the function word _)aSHER_ is used to indicate
> > a clause. Had it been some other (non-verbal) name, we would
> > expect simply _)EHYEH_ followed by the predicate noun/adjective.
> >
> > So we should correctly translate it "I am I AM." This is
> > supported by the following verse where he says simply "I AM has sent me."
> >
> > Dan Wagner
> >
> >
> >
> >
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