Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Dave Washburn" <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

[snip]
> Do you think i have a good argument for distinguishing the usage
> of the first _EHYEH_ from that of the second (as also in LXX)? Do
> you think that the only way to do this in Hebrew was with the
> _)aSHER_ used as a sign of subordination to introduce the
> substantive finite verb? How do you propose to introduce a finite
> verb as a substantive?? 

In some support of Dan's idea, F. I. Andersen, in "The Sentence in 
Biblical Hebrew," consistently refers to 'a$er as the "nominalizer."  
If there is some merit to this implicit definition of 'a$er, then Dan's 
suggestion becomes quite possible.

[snip]

Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
"You just keep thinking, Butch.  That's what you're good at."