Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Daniel Wagner" <dan.wagner AT netzero.net>]

I forgot to mention, though this might be obvious, that the examples which i 
provided of a prepositioned _)aSHER_ subordinating a verb may be somewhat 
parallel to the fuction of _)aSHER_ in Ex. 3:14, with the obvious exception 
that the preposition itself is not needed there, only the _)aSHER_ alone 
before the verb. Is that reasonable?

Dan Wagner

----- Original Message ----- 
From: Daniel Wagner <dan.wagner AT netzero.net>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Wednesday, May 02, 2001 11:38 PM
Subject: _)aSHER_ in Ex. 3:14 (was "I AM")

> Do you know of any other instances where )a:$eR is used this way?

Well, it's usage is so broad ... but no i can't. However, i can anticipate 
the possibility because of its broadness in function, as a sign of 
subordination. A verb would not be able to take a preposition, for example, 
whereas _)a:$eR_ can take one preceding a verb to subordinate the verbal 
concept or its subject. This is very common as i'm sure you know, but just as 
examples (with B) Judge 5:27; 17:8-9; Ruth 1:17; (with L) Lev. 27:24, Num. 
5:7, Job 12:6, Isa. 2:8; (w/ K too many.... ) Gen. 7:9, 16, 8:21, etc. 




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