Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>]

> Not necessarily.

You may be right, but I want to see some examples of the relative clause used
as predicate as you suggest it is here.

> If you remember, my translation did not actually repeat
> the state of being verb, but it still conveyed the same idea without
> using it.  And I see no reason that the same could not happen in Hebrew.
> But I see Bryan has already mentioned this, so I'll shut up about it.

Bryan's solution involved another addition, which changes the whole picture.

>  As
> for other examples, I'm not sure what you're looking for.  It's the
> specific relationship this clause bears to the first part of the verse
> that allows it to happen in this specific way.  What specific
> construction would you want to see as evidence?

Being Verb + Relative (where other elements intervene)

Lee R. Martin