Biblical Hebrew Forum

[spedrson AT juno.com (Trevor M Peterson)]

On Thu, 10 Dec 1998 15:33:25 -0500 "Lee R. Martin" <lmartin AT vol.com>
writes:
>Dear Trevor,
>Thanks for your reply.
>Can you show me other examples where the relative clause ('aSheR) is 
>the
>predicate with the verb "to be" understood?  If your translation (and 
>RSV) is
>correct, I would have expected TiHeYeh to be repeated.

Not necessarily.  If you remember, my translation did not actually repeat
the state of being verb, but it still conveyed the same idea without
using it.  And I see no reason that the same could not happen in Hebrew. 
But I see Bryan has already mentioned this, so I'll shut up about it.  As
for other examples, I'm not sure what you're looking for.  It's the
specific relationship this clause bears to the first part of the verse
that allows it to happen in this specific way.  What specific
construction would you want to see as evidence?

Trevor Peterson
Bible/Theology Department
Washington Bible College
Lanham, MD

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