Corpus-Paul

[tiona AT comcast.net]

Jim Writes

 

> How will OT texts be any more authoritative for non jews than would
> Homer or Socrates? It makes perfect sense to suggest that Paul doesn't
> use OT texts with non Jews because there is no point in it- just as it
> makes perfect sense to suggest he uses OT texts for Jewish audiences
> precisely because they will "get it". Gentiles won't "get it" so theres
> no point in using it. 

 

I would disagree that Paul does not expect his audience (gentile or not) to have a grasp on the TANAK.  In many of his writings, especially Romans, where his audience is a large part gentile, Paul uses very sophisticated Rabbinic style teaching.  In the course of a dialogue, he will quote one verse or a part of a verse that contains a specific point that he wishes to make. ie Rom 1:17.  His use of the String of Pearls method looks very much like the Rabbis of his generation.    The OT scriptures that he quotes are clearly from the LXX.  And even though he doesn't quote the OT directly in 1Th, his verbage sounds like any of a number of the Rabbis teaching halakah.

 

I think to assume that his audience in not taught in the scriptures is to assume that Paul would not have used the scriptures when he was teaching them how to no longer be Pagan.  IMO Paul would have expected them to know scripture because to quote James when addressing the council "Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day".

 

Respectfully,

Jeff