Corpus-Paul

["John Wilking" <johnwilking AT hotmail.com>]

Harold,

Could you do me a favor and briefly say why you think the connection between 
Jer. and Rom. is not strong.

John C. Wilking

> From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
> Reply-To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> Subject: [corpus-paul] Re: Romans 10:1-4
> Date: Sun, 26 Mar 2000 21:02:53 -0600
>
> Dear Alexander,
>      I have not been following this thread because the connection between
> the Jeremiah passage and Rom 10:1-4 did not seem strong. But it seems that
> you minimize Paul's use of God's word to provide authority for what he
> says. It's true that Paul was an apostle appointed by God with direct
> revelation, but even Jesus used the authority of the OT. The fact that in 2
> Corinthians 3 Paul does not give a biblical source for a negating dichotomy
> between the Torah and the "new covenant" of "the Spirit" does not mean that
> he could not have done so (Jer 31:8, 31-34; Ezek 16:60; 34:25; 36:24-28;
> 37:26). In Romans 4 Paul does not "argue from chronological sequence that
> Abraham's status as righteous while uncircumcised negates the obligation of
> circumcision for Abraham's descendants who are of the resurrection faith."
> At least that is not the explicit purpose of his argument. Paul argues that
> Abraham's example shows that people can be reckoned righteous apart from
> circumcision. Paul, at least here, does not go on to argue that
> circumcision is not obligatory for anyone.
>
>                                         Sincerely,
>                                         Harold Holmyard
>
>
>
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