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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] dagesh in two root nouns with patah

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  • From: Will Parsons <wbparsons AT alum.mit.edu>
  • To: kwrandolph AT gmail.com
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] dagesh in two root nouns with patah
  • Date: Sat, 13 Nov 2010 08:31:55 -0500 (EST)

On Fri, 12 Nov 2010 17:27:48 -0800, K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com> wrote:
> Arnaud:
>
> On Thu, Nov 11, 2010 at 1:40 PM, Arnaud Fournet
> <fournet.arnaud AT wanadoo.fr>wrote:
>
> > From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
> >
> > Before the Babylonian Exile, there were no BGD-KPT softening of
> >> consonants, so any doubling would have to be explicit, rather than
> >> implicit
> >> using a dot.
> >
> > ***
> >
> > I must say that I'm really impressed by the number of people on this list
> > who tend to make statements without any reservations and without any kind
> > of
> > substantiation about "X Y Z was/were A B C".
> >
>
> How often does one want to read a long dissertation to defend a simple
> concept? For the most part, is that not overkill?
>
> > I really wonder how the above statement can receive any beginning of
> > substantiation.
>
> Where is there substantiation for the claim that there was a softening of
> the BGD-KPT in Biblical times? I’m not questioning about 1000 AD, just
> 1450–600 BC? There’s none, outside of theory. Would not some of the
> transliterations from later contradict the claim that BGD-KPT existed in
> Biblical times, or at least bring it into question?

I would tend to agree about Biblical times, but the transliterations in
the LXX indicate a softening had taken or was in the process of taking
place. That's post-Biblical, of course, but it brings the change down a
lot closer than c. 1000 AD.

--
Will Parsons



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