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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] dagesh in two root nouns with patah

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  • From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: Arnaud Fournet <fournet.arnaud AT wanadoo.fr>
  • Cc: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] dagesh in two root nouns with patah
  • Date: Fri, 12 Nov 2010 17:27:48 -0800

Arnaud:

On Thu, Nov 11, 2010 at 1:40 PM, Arnaud Fournet
<fournet.arnaud AT wanadoo.fr>wrote:

>
> From: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
>
>
> Before the Babylonian Exile, there were no BGD-KPT softening of
>> consonants, so any doubling would have to be explicit, rather than
>> implicit
>> using a dot.
>>
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>>
>
> ***
>
> I must say that I'm really impressed by the number of people on this list
> who tend to make statements without any reservations and without any kind of
> substantiation about "X Y Z was/were A B C".
>

How often does one want to read a long dissertation to defend a simple
concept? For the most part, is that not overkill?

>
> I really wonder how the above statement can receive any beginning of
> substantiation.
>

Where is there substantiation for the claim that there was a softening of
the BGD-KPT in Biblical times? I’m not questioning about 1000 AD, just
1450–600 BC? There’s none, outside of theory. Would not some of the
transliterations from later contradict the claim that BGD-KPT existed in
Biblical times, or at least bring it into question?

>
> Perplexed...
>
> Maybe the moderators should request that anyone who makes that kind of
> abrupt claim should at least provide one on-line reference.
>

What sort of reference would you accept?

>
> Arnaud Fournet
>

My reference was to the list provided by George, where if one makes an
explicit doubling of the final consonant in all but one of his examples, it
gives very different meanings.

Karl W. Randolph.




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