Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Chris Echols <chrisechols AT gmail.com>]

Good evening all.  I am brand new to the list and someone suggested that I
put a question to the list to see if anyone had any comments...

I've come across some "Word of Faith" ministers that espouse the idea that
there are a lot of verbs in Hebrew that would have been better translated in
the "permissive" sense, rather than the "causative".  I've seen a few sparse
mentioning of this concept in a few articles and writings, by Robert Young
and Thomas Pierce.  I've also talked to a few Hebrew Scholars (I use this
term in the loosest possible sense) that have admitted that it is  plausible
considering how little is "certain" regarding Biblical Hebrew syntax and
verb structure.  I don't read or speak Hebrew, but am now interested in the
topic.

For example:
“And the LORD said unto Moses, When thou goest to return into Egypt, see
that thou do all those wonders before Pharaoh, which I have put in thine
hand: *but I will harden his heart*, that he shall not let the people go.”
—Exodus 4:21 KJV

This permissive vs. causative theory says that this verse would better be
translated "...* but I will let his heart be hardened*..." as to remove from
God any active action in doing something evil.  To further drive home the
point, we see that Rotherham's Emphasized Bible translates this verse as...
“And Yahweh said unto Moses, When thou goest to return to Egypt, see as
touching all the wonders which I have put in thy hand, that thou do them
before Pharaoh—*but, I, will let his heart wax bold*, and he will not suffer
the people to go.” —Exodus 4:21 Rotherham

What is your take on this phenomenon?
-- 
Thanks,

Chris E. Echols
AVI-SPL