Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

On Thu, Feb 26, 2009 at 8:39 PM, Brak wrote:

> The base parts are not the same graphically - as one has a dagesh, the
> other doesn't.
> My diving the word is not arbitrary! The morpheme breaks I gave are not
> of my invention!
> My question is about the "base" - weather you approve of it or not. So
> please don't tell me what questions to ask.
>
> So my question is what it is: Does the addition of a dagesh(es) into the
> "base" of the word change the meaning the of "base" of the word?

Since you referred to CCAT, I just thought I'd point out that if you are using
CCAT as the basis for the division of morphemes, then you are misusing
their division scheme in placing the dagesh with what you call the "base
word."  The authors of CCAT are in agreement with David Kummerow here.
They just can't place the dagesh with the previous morpheme because of
the way Hebrew is transcribed, even if they would want to do so.

Yitzhak Sapir