Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

Thankfully David Hamuel got it, and now Yitzhak got it as well.
And I got my answer I needed.
So just read their posts to which I basically commented "Awesome Job!!"  lol

The words you just gave is what I'm talking about, but in the inverse - 
as the words mean the same thing despite the dagesh variance. I was just 
asking if there will ever be a varience in meaning due to the dagesh alone.
And the answer demonstrated by David Hamuel and Yitzhak is an emphatic 
"YES!"

So I got my answer. Now I would just love a bunch of examples.
So if you still don't understand my question (this goes for the rest) 
don't worry about it - as the question has already been answered.
Now I'm just looking for some icing of the cake in the form of more 
examples. :)

B"H
John Steven

Jason Hare wrote:
> John,
>
> I'm still completely clueless as to what you're asking. I know you've
> asked the question several times and in a couple of different ways. In
> the end, I just don't think your question makes sense. Is there a
> reason why a whole slew of Hebrew scholars and laymen cannot come up
> with a satisfactory answer for your question? Perhaps somethings wrong
> with what you're asking and not with the (often complex and fantastic)
> answers you've been receiving from so many of the list members. Is
> there a reason you're asking this specific question and insisting on
> its preciseness?
>
> I will say that there are times when certain words contain dagesh and
> the same word doesn't in other situations. This is especially true for
> dagesh lene when it appears at the beginning of a word. If a word
> ending in a vowel sound precedes the letter normally holding a dagesh,
> it will often drop.
>
> Notice the word BDRK ("in the way") in Deuteronomy 6:6, for example:
>
> וְשִׁנַּנְתָּם לְבָנֶיךָ וְדִבַּרְתָּ בָּם בְּשִׁבְתְּךָ בְּבֵיתֶךָ
> וּבְלֶכְתְּךָ בַדֶּרֶךְ וּבְשָׁכְבְּךָ וּבְקוּמֶךָ׃
>
> It is vocalized BAD.EREK: rather than B.AD.EREK, as it would be if not
> preceded by a word ending in a vowel. Notice that this is not
> consistent, as we see even in the same verse in the word BBYTK ("in
> your house/home"). This could just as easily have been pointed without
> the dagesh without affecting the meaning.
>
> Sometimes you will find a dagesh inserted into, for example, the L of
> the word L). I don't have examples of this available (or of other
> places in which the dagesh is inserted into the first letter of some
> words as a sort of consonantal emphasis), but someone here certainly
> has this information.
>
> Is this at all what you're asking about? If not, what in the world do you 
> mean?!
>
> Regards,
> Jason Hare
> Rehovot, Israel
>
> On Thu, Feb 26, 2009 at 10:39 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:
>   
> > The base parts are not the same graphically - as one has a dagesh, the
> > other doesn't.
> > My diving the word is not arbitrary! The morpheme breaks I gave are not
> > of my invention!
> > My question is about the "base" - weather you approve of it or not. So
> > please don't tell me what questions to ask.
> >
> > So my question is what it is: Does the addition of a dagesh(es) into the
> > "base" of the word change the meaning the of "base" of the word?
> >     
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>