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  • From: Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
  • To: Jason Hare <jaihare AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?
  • Date: Thu, 26 Feb 2009 20:45:14 -0500

Thankfully David Hamuel got it, and now Yitzhak got it as well.
And I got my answer I needed.
So just read their posts to which I basically commented "Awesome Job!!" lol

The words you just gave is what I'm talking about, but in the inverse - as the words mean the same thing despite the dagesh variance. I was just asking if there will ever be a varience in meaning due to the dagesh alone.
And the answer demonstrated by David Hamuel and Yitzhak is an emphatic "YES!"

So I got my answer. Now I would just love a bunch of examples.
So if you still don't understand my question (this goes for the rest) don't worry about it - as the question has already been answered.
Now I'm just looking for some icing of the cake in the form of more examples. :)

B"H
John Steven

Jason Hare wrote:
John,

I'm still completely clueless as to what you're asking. I know you've
asked the question several times and in a couple of different ways. In
the end, I just don't think your question makes sense. Is there a
reason why a whole slew of Hebrew scholars and laymen cannot come up
with a satisfactory answer for your question? Perhaps somethings wrong
with what you're asking and not with the (often complex and fantastic)
answers you've been receiving from so many of the list members. Is
there a reason you're asking this specific question and insisting on
its preciseness?

I will say that there are times when certain words contain dagesh and
the same word doesn't in other situations. This is especially true for
dagesh lene when it appears at the beginning of a word. If a word
ending in a vowel sound precedes the letter normally holding a dagesh,
it will often drop.

Notice the word BDRK ("in the way") in Deuteronomy 6:6, for example:

וְשִׁנַּנְתָּם לְבָנֶיךָ וְדִבַּרְתָּ בָּם בְּשִׁבְתְּךָ בְּבֵיתֶךָ
וּבְלֶכְתְּךָ בַדֶּרֶךְ וּבְשָׁכְבְּךָ וּבְקוּמֶךָ׃

It is vocalized BAD.EREK: rather than B.AD.EREK, as it would be if not
preceded by a word ending in a vowel. Notice that this is not
consistent, as we see even in the same verse in the word BBYTK ("in
your house/home"). This could just as easily have been pointed without
the dagesh without affecting the meaning.

Sometimes you will find a dagesh inserted into, for example, the L of
the word L). I don't have examples of this available (or of other
places in which the dagesh is inserted into the first letter of some
words as a sort of consonantal emphasis), but someone here certainly
has this information.

Is this at all what you're asking about? If not, what in the world do you
mean?!

Regards,
Jason Hare
Rehovot, Israel

On Thu, Feb 26, 2009 at 10:39 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:
The base parts are not the same graphically - as one has a dagesh, the
other doesn't.
My diving the word is not arbitrary! The morpheme breaks I gave are not
of my invention!
My question is about the "base" - weather you approve of it or not. So
please don't tell me what questions to ask.

So my question is what it is: Does the addition of a dagesh(es) into the
"base" of the word change the meaning the of "base" of the word?
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