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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?

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  • From: Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
  • To: Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?
  • Date: Thu, 26 Feb 2009 20:39:29 -0500

I'm sorry - but I don't know which David you are referencing, or his comment you are referring to.
This has become quite a thread! lol

But I will say:
Interesting thought on the methodology of the morpheme breaks in the CCAT encoded text.
So you are basically saying that the dagesh found in the second radical of the word (first radical of the "base") should actually be in the prefixed side of the morpheme break - but according the the encoding schema (Letter - Dagesh) had to put the dagesh on the "base" side - even though it really doesn't belong there.

Very interesting thought. And I thank you for it!!

B"H
John Steven

Yitzhak Sapir wrote:
On Thu, Feb 26, 2009 at 8:39 PM, Brak wrote:

The base parts are not the same graphically - as one has a dagesh, the
other doesn't.
My diving the word is not arbitrary! The morpheme breaks I gave are not
of my invention!
My question is about the "base" - weather you approve of it or not. So
please don't tell me what questions to ask.

So my question is what it is: Does the addition of a dagesh(es) into the
"base" of the word change the meaning the of "base" of the word?

Since you referred to CCAT, I just thought I'd point out that if you are using
CCAT as the basis for the division of morphemes, then you are misusing
their division scheme in placing the dagesh with what you call the "base
word." The authors of CCAT are in agreement with David Kummerow here.
They just can't place the dagesh with the previous morpheme because of
the way Hebrew is transcribed, even if they would want to do so.

Yitzhak Sapir
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