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  • From: Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>
  • To: David Kummerow <farmerjoeblo AT hotmail.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Any meaning to the Dagesh?
  • Date: Wed, 25 Feb 2009 17:27:26 -0500

Again - I just want to focus of the "base morpheme". I didn't know what the term is for this part of the word. I know the of the prefix and suffix - but never learned the term of the part in the middle of the prefix and suffix. So I coined the term "base".
What is that part called?

In the following example:
<H:A/$OM"R> vs <HA/$.OM"R>

The dagesh has no effect on the "base morpheme." With or without the dagesh its still a "Qal Participle Masculine Singular".
THIS.... THIS is what I am concerned about - and have been trying to ask all this time.
Is there any examples where adding/removing a dagesh from the "base" with NO OTHER graphic changes to the "base" effect a change of the meaning of JUST the "base"?

So can someone PLEASE answer my actual question. Don't tell me about the relationships between vowels and dageshim, or letters being absorbed by other letter. As interesting as that might be - it does not answer my question.

I just want a simple "Yes" or "No", and is the answer is "yes" at least one example of each word from the Bible.

David Kummerow wrote:
Hi John,

Sorry, by questioning "base morpheme", I was simply wondering what
meaning you were giving this term as it seems to be a term coined by
yourself, that's all.

To assert that "the dagesh has no effect on the meaning of the base" is
a rather confusing way to put things.

a) While the prefix does not alter the semantics of the following
participle, the dagesh does in fact alter the semantics of the morpheme
of which it forms an essential part -- /haC-/ is the morpheme in
question, and to remove this alters the morpheme and consequently the
semantics. Hence your claim that removing the dagesh involves no meaning loss is not true.

b) While the prefix does not alter the semantics of the following
participle, it does have scope over the following particle. If the
morpheme is /haC-/ or /ha-/ alters the illocution considerably. Hence
again your claim that removing the dagesh involves no meaning loss is not true.

Regards,
David Kummerow.


David Kummerow wrote:
> Hi John,
>
> Not sure what you mean by "base morpheme".
>
By "base morpheme" I mean the main part of the word - not the prefix(es)
or suffix(es).
This should have been clear by my use of the example below of:

<H:A/$OM"R> vs <HA/$.OM"R>:
<$OM"R> = Qal Participle Masculine Singular
<$.OM"R> = Qal Participle Masculine Singular

So lets just focus on the dagesh on the base.
So in the above example the dagesh has no effect on the meaning of the base.
Its Qal Participle Masculine Singular with or without the dagesh.

Are there any examples where the dagesh (and it alone) will change the
meaning?



B"H
John Steven


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