Biblical Hebrew Forum

[sujata <shevaroys AT yahoo.com>]

Doesn't the Royal WE take on a similar role? Some languages of India do use 
"we" instead of I in classical poetry when for example a king refers to 
himself. He might say  "We met X" instead of I met X.
   
  Does Hebrew differentiate between inclusive and exclusive We. E.g., is 
there a different pronoun for We (including the hearer) and We (excluding the 
hearer)?
  
Best,
  Sujata

Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org> wrote:
  On 14/11/2006 17:36, Uri Hurwitz wrote:
> Peter kirk wrote, in part:
> 
> 
> 
>> ..."in English there is no politeness distinction in second person 
>> 
> pronouns, "...
> 
> Wasn't there a clear social distinction between 'thou' and 'you' in the 
> past, a distinction clearly retained in current German between 'Du' 
> and 'Sie' ?
> 
> 
Yes, in the past, but not since the 17th century. Note that I wrote 
"there is", not "there was". "Thou" is still in use in a few dialects, 
but not I think with a consistent politeness related distinction.

-- 
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter AT qaya.org
Blog: http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/

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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53:11
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Is53 takes on deliberately archaic speech with some turns modeled directly
upon Job. The turn in Is53:11 is an archaism.
Here is wordplay: righteous is also someone acquitted in court. Having
repented, the man would have been acquitted by court and thus justified
himself before a multitude of Jews, proving himself righteous.

http://vadimcherny.org/judaism/isaiah53.htm

Vadim Cherny

>
> First of all, looking at the context, the whole chapter was talking
> about "my slave" עבדי which would make us predisposed to read the word
> in this verse as referring to the person and not to an action.
> Further, if it refered to an action, the action would tend to have
> been a feminine, not masculine, noun.
>
> While an adjective usually followed the noun it modified, this is an
> example of one that preceded it. I think there are other examples, but
> I can't remember any off the top of my head. The verb is third person
> masculine singular, which argues against it being either "my service"
> or "justness", leaving us with the non-standard "my just slave" with
> the adjective preceding the noun.
>
> I'm just thinking out loud. Wouldn't mind further comment.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> On 11/12/06, kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com> wrote:
> > I am just curious. Is "My righteous servant" grammatically right in
Isaiah
> > 53:11 ? Are there any other examples like this? Does it literally say
"the
> > righteous one (of) My serving"?
> >
> > When I look at words like "My holy name" or "My holy mountain" they seem
to
> > be written in a different order in Hebrew." Name (of?) My holy(My
holiness)"
> > and "mountain (of?) My holy(My holiness)?
> >
> > Can someone explain the difference if there is any.
> >
> > Kenneth Greifer
>