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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Kamatz katan; Ashkenazi pronunciation; was: Translating

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  • From: "Rolf Furuli" <furuli AT online.no>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Kamatz katan; Ashkenazi pronunciation; was: Translating
  • Date: Sat, 7 Oct 2006 06:44:08 +0100

Dear Peter,

Time and again it has been demonstrated that we live in two different
linguistic worlds. So I see no purpose in a discussion between us. However,
you challenge my statement that it is a fact that WAYYIQTOLs did not exist
before the Masoretes. I will comment on that.

A WAYYIQTOL is by definition a prefix form with patah and gemination (or
vowel lenthening i 1. p. s). It is *a fact* that such forms are not found
before the Masoretes. About 23% of all WAYYIQTOLs in the MT are apocopated.
These are particularly found among hiphils and lamed he verbs. The problem
for those using apocopation as an indetification of WAYYIQTOLs is that a
great number of WEYIQTOLs are apocopated as well. So, when a prefix form in
unpointed texts is preceded by a WAW, there is no way to identify it as
anything but a conjunction. So, it is *a fact* that there are no proofs that
WAYYIQTOLs existed before the Masoretes. I did not discuss speculation and beliefs; I discussed morphological evidence.



Best regards,

Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo

----- Original Message ----- From: "Peter Kirk" <peter AT qaya.org>


... The answer stands and falls with the view of WAYYIQTOL. As a matter
of fact, the WAYYIQTOL did not exist before the Masoretes! ...

This is not a matter of fact but of your interpretation. Even if there was
a real absence of evidence (and there is in fact plenty from apocopation,
and from distinctions in translations in LXX etc), absence of evidence is
not evidence of absence. There are plenty of things about ancient
languages of which we don't have direct evidence, only more or less
speculative reconstructions. The absence of evidence of how ancient
peoples spoke is not evidence that they didn't speak!







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