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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Translating - some elementary questions

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  • From: "Vadim Cherny" <VadimCherny AT mail.ru>
  • To: "Yitzhak Sapir" <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Translating - some elementary questions
  • Date: Tue, 3 Oct 2006 20:55:56 +0300

> Why do the Greek and Latin forms consistenly end the 2nd m.s. suffix
without a vowel?
> Yitzhak Sapir

Are you sure? I was under impression that transliterations have -ac/-ec 2ms
suffix, quite with a vowel.
The difference with the MT could be explained: we just read the MT
incorrectly. Vocalization in suffixes is trailing (like under het), not
lagging. The Masoretes meant to read dvarac, we just erroneously read
dvarcha. That explains absence of dagesh kal in the suffix consonant in MT:
dvarcha rather than the expected dvar.ca with interconsonantal stop, dagesh
kal.

Vadim Cherny





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