Biblical Hebrew Forum

["JAMES CHRISTIAN READ" <JCR128 AT student.apu.ac.uk>]

Karl wrote:
As for using "had" in verse 22 in translation, I think "has" makes
better sense in English. The context is a simple past in relation to
the speaking.
END QUOTE

It was a typo. The 'd' is next to the 's' on the keyboard.
I meant to write 'has'. The correct name for the tense
used in 'has become' is present perfect, though. But
I agree, 'has become' is definitely better.

Karl wrote:
Both verses are in the context of Genesis 5:1–2, the title of the
section according to very ancient literary practice. Just as chapter
two had some things written out of sequence, so chapter three could
include an event that occurred later.
END QUOTE

JCR: So, are you suggesting that 'has become'/'became'
is the best translation for the Eve bit?