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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Daniel 6:27 (time indefinite) II

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  • From: Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>
  • To: Karl Randolph <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Daniel 6:27 (time indefinite) II
  • Date: Sat, 19 Nov 2005 22:33:34 +0000

On 19/11/2005 21:52, Karl Randolph wrote:

Peter:

Jeremiah 5:15 refers to a nation M(WLM. But a reading of Genesis clearly shows that there was a world wide flood about 1500 years after creation, and from then to the Tower of Babel an indeterminate time, and the founding of that nation an indeterminate time after that, so that M(WLM could be as little as a third of the time from creation to Jeremiah's time. For you to insist that (WLM goes back to creation or beyond is ludicrous in this context.


Yes, this is a possible case of past `olam meaning rather less than "ever since creation" - if you assume that Jeremiah knew about the flood, the Tower of Babel etc., which not everyone would.

There are many other similar usages in Tanakh for the past, I don't need to repeat them.

Similarly, (WLM referring to the future does not necessarily mean "forever" or "eternity", though it may, depending on context, unless you use "forever" and "eternity" in a highly idiosyncratic manner.


Well, I have asked everyone on this list several times, and the only supposed examples I have received (apart from the "slavery to the end of his life" example which I have dealt with) are based on reinterpreting the Hebrew language on the basis of New Testament and later Christian theology. I am not "us[ing] "forever" and "eternity" in a highly idiosyncratic manner", I am simply using them to describe the understanding of the original Hebrew Bible authors, which was not informed by the New Testament.

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/





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