Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>]

    Hello  Again Jim,
 
     May i suggest you get  acquainted with elementary introductions to 
archaeolgy of ancient Israel by A. Amihai, or the more recent one by 
I.Finkelstein. These two have serious disagreemnts with each other, but in 
each you'll find plethora -- not just a few!  --  examples.
     
    Just think about the epigraphic evidence from Iron II, or at least 
familiarize yourself  in a most rudimentary manner about it.
 
    Uri 

Jim West <jwest AT highland.net> wrote:
".... I urge you though, to list 5 artifacts 
definitively and irrefutably dating from Iron II."

-- 
D. Jim West

Biblical Studies Resources - http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog - http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com

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>From rosewalk AT concentric.net  Thu Aug  4 17:57:06 2005
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From: Shoshanna Walker <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Is.45:7 God created evil?
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It is taught that Satan is an angel - a servant of G-d - whose job is=20
to tempt humans to do evil, and therefore we have the choice between=20
good and evil - and that is its only job/purpose.

Shoshanna





Really interesting stuff Chris, and I have to admit, persuasive.  But I
wonder- has the fact that the definite article dropped out signalled
something of a further development in terms of "satanology" (forgive me
that) in the Hebrew Bible?  That is- in older texts, Yahweh causes weal
and woe.  In Job, HaSatan causes woe.  In the Chronicler Satan (as a
full blown proper name) is given credit for inciting David to act
against Yahweh's wishes.  Does that make sense?  In other words, we
have, within the HB itself, a clear, temporally noticeable development
of this theme.

Heard Christopher wrote:

>Although 2 Samuel 24:1 vs. 1 Chronicles 21:1 is a _locus classicus_
>in understanding the difference between the Chronicler's treatment of
>David and the Deuteronomistic Historian's treatment of David, and
>although I have often thought about the texts in question in the
>terms Jim expressed earlier, quoted above, in the last few times I
>have looked at these verses, I have begun to doubt its accuracy.
>
>Specifically, in 1 Chronicles 21:1 it is _not_  =D7=EE=D7=A9=D7=F2=D7=FC=
 [H&+N] that
>incites David to count the people; it is merely =D7=A9=D7=F2=D7=FC [&+N] (n=
o
>definite article). Now the lack of a definite article is very
>important here, it seems to me. For the verse ought not be translated
>"Satan opposed [stood against] Israel, and incited David to count
>Israel," nor "The Adversary opposed ..." since there is no definite
>article, but rather, "_An_ adversary opposed ...," with an indefinite
>article. Now I wonder--I have not done the real legwork on this yet,
>so I'm thinking out loud--whether the Chronicler thinks he is
>referring to YHWH, or an entity other than YHWH, by this word,
>indefinite =D7=A9=D7=F2=D7=FC [&+N]. The Hebrew word =D7=A9=D7=F2=D7=FC=
 [&+N], of course, does
>not _inherently_ refer to some malignant supernatural entity; see 1
>Kings 11:23-25, where the noun =D7=A9=D7=F2=D7=FC [&+N] refers to a purely =
human
>opponent, though one who, importantly, was incited _by God_ to be
>such. Moreover, there is nothing semantically out of bounds about God
>being a =D7=A9=D7=F2=D7=FC [&+N], or at least we can say that at least one =
writer
>had no trouble characterizing the =D7=FB=D7=EA=D7=FA=D7=F6 =D7=F4=D7=EE=D7=
=EF=D7=EE [M)LK YHWH] "angel
>of YHWH" as a =D7=A9=D7=F2=D7=FC [&+N] to someone (Numbers 22:22). Clearly,=
 the
>Chronicler is altering his Deuteronomistic source text. But is he
>completely changing the referent, or just using a subtle circumlocution?
>
>Chris
>

Best,
Jim

--=20
D. Jim West

Biblical Studies Resources -  http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical Theology Weblog -  http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com

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