Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Awohili AT aol.com]

First, I express my appreciation to all who have commented on this  subject.  
A lot of good information has been presented, IMO.  Drawing  precise 
conclusions from the information has been the difficulty.
 
One question I did not see addressed -- unless I missed it -- is, why (for  
what possible purpose) is the Yah ("Jah") form in the text at all?  Is it a  
clue hidden in plain sight?  Is it an anachronism? For example, if the  
Tetragram is to be pointed as Yeho-, why do we have Yah (standing alone) and  
-yahu as 
a prefix in theophorics?  Is this irrelevant?  Then, why is  it there in the 
text at all?  I have no answers, just questions.
 
This discussion may never be conclusive -- absent the discovery of some  long 
hidden, new scroll or somesuch -- but it has been very interesting,  and has 
produced a tad more light than heat.
 
Solomon Landers