Biblical Hebrew Forum

[David P Donnelly <davedonnelly1 AT juno.com>]

Alexander Oldernes writes:

>>>
...my personal logic tells me that the pronunciation may not be very 
different from Jehudah.

( One interesting detail is the 3rd person masculine HaWaH in
Ecclesiastes 
11:3, which is pronounced YeHU[a] )
>>>

For what it is worth, Gerard Gertoux's conclusion 
is that God's name written "according to its letters",
is "Iehoua" and is pronounced "Yehua".

However, Gerard Gertoux ackowledged that the purpose of his writing his
book,
was to try to convince experts that "Yehowah" was more likely to be God's
name than was "Yahweh".

Dave Donnelly
>From k0434995 AT kingston.ac.uk  Fri Jul 22 14:52:58 2005
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Thread-Topic: [b-hebrew] Aramaic - Abba
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From: "Read, James C" <K0434995 AT kingston.ac.uk>
To: "Jim West" <jwest AT highland.net>
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I=20concur=20that=20they=20were=20doing=20it.=20what=20I=20disagree=20on=20=
is=20when=20they=20were=20
doing=20it.=20I=20think=20it=20is=20clear=20that=20this=20behaviour=20was=20=
before=20their=20conversion.
There=20are=20also=20places=20that=20tell=20people=20not=20to=20lie,steal,=
murder=20etc.=20But=20that
doesn't=20lead=20me=20to=20believe=20that=20these=20things=20were=20accept=
able=20christian=20practises.

-----Original=20Message-----
From:=20Jim=20West=20[mailto:jwest AT highland.net]
Sent:=20Fri=207/22/2005=207:49=20PM
To:=20Read,=20James=20C;=20b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject:=20Re:=20[b-hebrew]=20Aramaic=20-=20Abba
=20
You=20don't=20have=20to=20tell=20someone=20to=20stop=20doing=20something=20=
unless=20they=20are=20
doing=20it.=20=20Our=20search=20for=20the=20meaning=20of=20Abba=20on=20the=
=20lips=20of=20Jesus=20is=20a=20
dead=20end-=20because=20at=20the=20end=20of=20the=20day,=20we=20have=20no=20=
way=20of=20knowing=20if=20
Jesus=20used=20the=20word=20or=20if=20it=20was=20placed=20in=20his=20mouth=
=20by=20writers=20who=20
thought=20it=20an=20efficacious=20word=20to=20use=20in=20prayer.

Read=20James=20C=20wrote:

>=20>=201)=20there=20were
>=20>christians=20who=20HAD=20magic=20books=20and=20used=20them,=20and=202=
)=20they=20were=20led=20to=20a
>=20>better=20understanding=20of=20prayer=20then=20they=20previously=20hel=
d=20(which=20means
>=20>that=20previously=20they=20held=20that=20prayer=20and=20magic=20were=20=
interrelated).=20
>=20>Acts=20itself=20proves=20my=20contention.
>
>
>=20The=20way=20I=20understood=20it=20is=20that=20after=20converting=20to=20=
Christianity=20they
>=20understood=20that=20the=20use=20of=20these=20books=20was=20bad.=20The=20=
books=20were=20of
>=20great=20value=20but=20they=20didn't=20sell=20them=20because=20this=20w=
ould=20perpetuate
>=20the=20evil.=20So=20instead=20at=20great=20expense=20they=20burned=20th=
em=20and=20this,=20to
>=20me=20(and=20I=20think=20most=20people)=20shows=20that=20the=20early=20=
christians=20were
>=20very=20much=20against=20the=20use=20of=20magic.
>

Jim

--=20
D.=20Jim=20West

Biblical=20Studies=20Resources=20-=20=20http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
Biblical=20Theology=20Weblog=20-=20=20http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com=



This=20email=20has=20been=20scanned=20for=20all=20viruses=20by=20the=20Mes=
sageLabs=20Email
Security=20System.


This=20email=20has=20been=20scanned=20for=20all=20viruses=20by=20the=20Mes=
sageLabs=20Email
Security=20System.
>From pennerkm AT mcmaster.ca  Fri Jul 22 14:57:05 2005
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From: "Ken Penner" <pennerkm AT mcmaster.ca>
To: "'Read, James C'" <K0434995 AT kingston.ac.uk>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Aramaic - Abba
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Hi James,
There must be more to your argument, which as it stands appears to be:

Aramaic was sometimes used by Jews in the Second Temple period.
Therefore "Aramaic had firmly supplanted the Hebrew language in everyday
use" in the first century.

It seems to me that three languages were in use in first century Judaea, so
demonstrating the use of one does not demonstrate its dominance over the
others. But it would be helpful to consider which  kinds of evidence could
we appeal to in order to show which (if any) of the three was dominant for
everyday use.

Ken Penner

> Of the top of my head the fact that large portions of Daniel 
> are written in Aramaic show that this shift had began. Also 
> Jesus use of Aramaic shows it was either used in his day or 
> he was just using loanwords. And finally, aren't some of the 
> apocryphal writings after the exile written in a strain of 
> Aramaic? (I haven't read them and so I'm just going of secondary 
> sources)