Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Martin Shields <enkidu AT bigpond.net.au>]

ISTM that the only information available is what is written in the  
text: that Jesus said "Abba" and that the author of the gospel felt  
that ho pater was the appropriate Greek translation for the term.  
Given that the Greek is relatively formal and that there were  
"informal" alternatives, it seems reasonable to infer that "Abba" was  
used more formally than informally, and thus that "dad" or even  
"daddy" are not appropriate English translations of the term.

Thanks to Vince Medina, however, for pointing out Barr's article. I  
will endeavour to read it.

As for the Hebrew/Aramaic issue, my immediate impression is that the  
Greek Abba (αββα) would represent Aramaic אבא. What Hebrew  
could Abba represent?

Martin Shields,
Sydney, Australia.

On 23/07/2005, at 2:10 AM, Yigal Levin wrote:

> Okay, then, assuming that Mark records the tradition faithfully, the
> question is whether Jesus would have been using Aramaic or Hebrew, and
> whether the form ABBA at that time would have been more formal or  
> less. Or,
> on the other hand, what Mark intended by putting the word Abba in  
> Jesus'
> mouth. I really don't think that we have enough information to go on.