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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Aramaic - Abba
  • Date: Fri, 22 Jul 2005 13:22:26 -0500

Dear Peter,

Well, there are several apparently Aramaic words recorded in
transliteration in Mark's gospel, e.g. TALIQA in 5:41 and SABACQANI in
15:34 (Q = theta, C = chi), and an apparently Hebrew one, ELWI = Elohi
in 15:34 (W = omega). Translations into Greek are given for all of them,
just as for "Abba". One interpretation is that Jesus was always speaking
Aramaic. Another is that Jesus was normally speaking Hebrew which was
translated into Greek, and the few Aramaic words preserved are preserved
to show their distinctively Aramaic nature.

HH: Others think the ELWI in Mark 15:34 is more Aramaic than Hebrew. The lHebrew and Aramaic will not always come through in this quote:
http://www.answers.com/topic/aramaic-of-jesus


Eli Eli lema sabachthani

Matthew 27:46

Around the ninth hour, Jesus shouted in a loud voice, saying "Eli Eli lema sabachthani?" which is, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"


Mark 15:34

And at the ninth hour, Jesus shouted in a loud voice, "Eloi Eloi lema sabachthani?" which is translated, "My God, my God, for what have you forsaken me?"

This phrase, shouted by Jesus from the cross, is given to us in these two versions. The Matthean version of the phrase is transliterated in Greek as Eli Eli lema sabachthani. The Markan version is similar, but begins Eloi Eloi lema sabachthani«.

Jesus seems to be quoting the first line of Psalm 22. However, he is not quoting the canonical Hebrew version (êlî êlî lâmâ `azabtonî), but is using an Aramaic translation of it (see targum).

In the following verse, in both accounts, some who hear Jesus' cry imagine that he is calling for help from Elijah (Eliyyâ). This is perhaps to underline the incomprehension of the bystanders about what is happening. Matthew's use of eli eli may indicate a more 'official' rendition of the psalm verse, more in line with the Hebrew. Mark's version probably represents the Aramaic colloquial better. The Aramaic behind Matthew is êlî êlî lm⠔vaqtanî. Whereas Mark has elohî elohî.

A few ancient Greek manuscripts show signs of trying to normalise this text. For instance, the peculiar Codex Bezae renders both versions with (êli êli lama zaphthani).

As the phrase is clearly translated into Greek in both instances there can be little doubt as to its meaning. However, a minority have speculated on different meanings, among them is George Lamsa, but his methodology has been shown to be seriously flawed. The Aramaic word ”vaqtanî is based on the verb ”vaq, 'to leave, forget', with the perfect tense ending -t (2nd person singular: 'you'), and the object suffix -anî (1st person singular: 'me').

Yours,
Harold Holmyard




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