Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

Okay, then, assuming that Mark records the tradition faithfully, the
question is whether Jesus would have been using Aramaic or Hebrew, and
whether the form ABBA at that time would have been more formal or less. Or,
on the other hand, what Mark intended by putting the word Abba in Jesus'
mouth. I really don't think that we have enough information to go on.


Yigal

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
To: "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
Cc: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, July 22, 2005 4:20 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Aramaic - Abba


> On 22/07/2005 16:00, Yigal Levin wrote:
>
> >Didn't he say "abi"? That means "my father" in either language.
> >
> >It's hard to trace when the "dad" usage began. My guess would be 1-2
> >centuries CE.
> >
> >
> >
> Jesus is reported as saying "ABBA hO PATHR" in the Greek text of Mark
> 14:36, with the Aramaic loan word in the Greek. Paul uses the identical
> phrase in Romans 8:15 and Galatians 4:6.
>
> "Abi" is probably a Hebrew and/or Aramaic translations or
> reconstructions of Jesus' words at other places e.g. Matthew 10:32,
> which is recorded in the Greek words hO PATHR MOU, "my Father".
>
> -- 
> Peter Kirk
> peter AT qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
>
>
>
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