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  • From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Aramaic - Abba
  • Date: Sun, 24 Jul 2005 20:17:20 -0500

Dear Peter,

Thank you for the correction, in fact I simply misread the N-A text. But the textual evidence in Nestle-Aland is very uncertain, and in fact several early MSS (B, D, theta) do have LAMA. Also, was the Aramaic word really LEMA with a clear E vowel, or was the first vowel a sheva? I ask because sheva as well as qamats was usually transliterated as alpha in Greek, in NT, LXX etc. So the epsilon here seems to be a corrupt form whether the original was Hebrew or Aramaic.

HH: The fact that sheva was usually transliterated as alpha in Greek does not mean that it always was. Two text critical sources for "why" in Mark 15:34 give "lima" and "lema, " so the letter "i" or the letter "e" is how they would represent the sheva on the Aramaic word for "why." The Septuagint transliterates sheva as "i" in the word "Lebanon" at Josh 11:7. It transliterates sheva as "e" in the word Lebonah at Judges 21:19. So neither the iota nor the epsilon in lema/lima at Mark 15:34 has to be a corrupt form.

Yours,
Harold Holmyard






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