Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Jim West <jwest AT highland.net>]

Peter Kirk wrote:

> >
> At the time of the DSS this would have been a normal spelling - 


This raises a question that I have never heard satisfactorily answered- 
to wit, when was spelling "normalized" in Hebrew texts?  Or for that 
matter, in Greek texts as well.  I ask because I read a lot of stuff 
from the Reformation and even as late as the mid 1500's German had no 
"normalized" orthographical system.  It stands to reason that if 
orthography wasn't normalized when the printing press existed, it 
wouldn't be before that time.  So I ask- when was Hebrew spelling 
"normailzed"?  And bibliography would be helpful (so I can check up to 
see if you are telling the truth).  ;-)

Jim

--
Jim West

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