Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Jim:

It never was normalized. I consistantly find spelling anomolies while 
reading, and have gotten used to them.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Jim West" <jwest AT highland.net>
> 
> 
> 
> Peter Kirk wrote:
> 
> >>
> > At the time of the DSS this would have been a normal spelling -
> 
> 
> This raises a question that I have never heard satisfactorily 
> answered- to wit, when was spelling "normalized" in Hebrew texts?  
> Or for that matter, in Greek texts as well.  I ask because I read a 
> lot of stuff from the Reformation and even as late as the mid 
> 1500's German had no "normalized" orthographical system.  It stands 
> to reason that if orthography wasn't normalized when the printing 
> press existed, it wouldn't be before that time.  So I ask- when was 
> Hebrew spelling "normailzed"?  And bibliography would be helpful 
> (so I can check up to see if you are telling the truth).  ;-)
> 
> Jim
> 
> -- Jim West
> 
> Biblical Studies Resources -  http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
> Biblical Theology Weblog -  http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com
> 
-- 
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