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b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] karu or ka'ari (Ps 22:16) ?

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  • From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
  • To: Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] karu or ka'ari (Ps 22:16) ?
  • Date: Tue, 26 Apr 2005 19:53:23 -0500

Jim:

It never was normalized. I consistantly find spelling anomolies while
reading, and have gotten used to them.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Jim West" <jwest AT highland.net>
>
>
>
> Peter Kirk wrote:
>
> >>
> > At the time of the DSS this would have been a normal spelling -
>
>
> This raises a question that I have never heard satisfactorily
> answered- to wit, when was spelling "normalized" in Hebrew texts?
> Or for that matter, in Greek texts as well. I ask because I read a
> lot of stuff from the Reformation and even as late as the mid
> 1500's German had no "normalized" orthographical system. It stands
> to reason that if orthography wasn't normalized when the printing
> press existed, it wouldn't be before that time. So I ask- when was
> Hebrew spelling "normailzed"? And bibliography would be helpful
> (so I can check up to see if you are telling the truth). ;-)
>
> Jim
>
> -- Jim West
>
> Biblical Studies Resources - http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
> Biblical Theology Weblog - http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com
>
--
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