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  • From: Uri Hurwitz <uhurwitz AT yahoo.com>
  • To: Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>
  • Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org, Ingrid Hjelm <ingrid_hjelm AT hotmail.com>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Samaritan script/proto-hebrew
  • Date: Wed, 13 Apr 2005 09:05:45 -0700 (PDT)



Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com> wrote, in part:

>
..." In
asking ourselves the question "When did the MT Former Prophets
exist?", we must answer, "we only know that by the 2nd century
BCE or 1st century BCE at the latest, that the Former Prophets
existed." This is because of the various translations,...."

If one reads Yishayahu, Yirmiyahu etc. one cannot but come accross various
concrete refrences to historical events in their time, involving Neo
Assyrian and Neo Babylonian events, apart from the names of kings under whom
they prophesized.

By Hellenistic time we have not a scintilla of evidence that anyone was
familiar with cuneiform in Judea.The historical material preserved with the
prophets does not seem to be contested by anyone, except you Yitzhak, and I
see no need to belabor the point.

The Mishanh, completed by c. 200 CE, is of course based on biblical texts,
these are MT texts, -- by all means check with Tuv.

Uri






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>From peterkirk AT qaya.org Wed Apr 13 12:09:23 2005
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Samaritan script/proto-hebrew
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On 13/04/2005 14:14, Ingrid Hjelm wrote:

> ... you cannot speak of the Misnahusing the MT, which did not exist in
> the 2nd century CE. At that time you have pre-masoretic texts ...


Agreed. But there is not just one pre-Masoretic text, there is a
succession of them covering more than a millennium.

> ... and the differerence involves more than vocalisation
> -non-vocalisation. ...


Not necessarily. Yes, there are differences other than vocalisation
between the particular pre-Masoretic text witnessed in the DSS and the
true Masoretic text. But, given the near absence of evidence from the
intervening centuries, we cannot know whether these differences predated
the 6th century CE. Indeed, we cannot know whether these predated the
Mishnah except from the evidence of the Mishnah itself. And from what
Uri wrote:

>the Mishnah, when quoting biblical texts, is practically using the MT
>
I understand him to be claiming that there are very few differences
between the MT and the consonantal text used by the authors of the
Mishnah. I presume that he is not making a claim that the Mishnah
reflects the MT vocalisation.


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/






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