Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Bearpecs:

As I explained to Peter Kirk, I am not stating this based on form, especially 
not in relation to some speculated "proto-semitic" language, rather, pointing 
to its function within B-Hebrew as we have it, it functions as a contraction 
of )$R with the following noun. Sorry for the not readily understood language 
that I used.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: Bearpecs AT aol.com
> 
> 
> Isn't $ a particle (deriving from third person pronouns?) independent of  
> the
> )$R conjunction (the latter derived from protosemitic noun meaning place,
> and appearing in Akkadian meaning "where")?
> 
> In a message dated 2/1/2005 8:37:47 PM Eastern Standard Time,
> kwrandolph AT email.com writes:
> 
> But in  the poetic form, the )$R is shortened to a prefixed  $-.
-- 
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