Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Bearpecs AT aol.com]

Isn't $ a particle (deriving from third person pronouns?) independent of  the 
)$R conjunction (the latter derived from protosemitic noun meaning place,  
and appearing in Akkadian meaning "where")?
 
In a message dated 2/1/2005 8:37:47 PM Eastern Standard Time,  
kwrandolph AT email.com writes:

But in  the poetic form, the )$R is shortened to a prefixed  $-.