Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<jason AT hareplay.com>]

Would the accent be on the object pronoun (shvaqtaNEE) or on the penult
(shvaqTAnee)?

In Hebrew, the accented syllable when you have a personal (object) pronoun
attached falls on the penult normally. Is that not the same in Aramaic?

Jason Hare
Missouri Southern State University - Joplin
Joplin, MO
Spanish Major (Undergrad)
jason AT hareplay.com

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Jack Kilmon" <jkilmon AT historian.net>
To: "CS Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>;
<b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, April 21, 2004 12:29 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Mark 15:34, Mat 27:46, & Psalm 22
> I have not yet read, in this thread, that the late Eastern Aramaic dialect
> Syriac of the Peshitta (which is a translation of the Greek texts) was NOT
> the Aramaic of 1st century Galilee or Judea and is therefore irrelevent.
In
> Old Judean Aramaic and the Galilean dialect, the suffix -y is "my"
> hence )lhy "aloHEE" (accent is on the suffix) is "MY God."
>
> aloHEE, aloHEE LAma shvaqtawNEE
>
> I don't see a puzzle.
>
> shlomo
>
> Jack