Biblical Hebrew Forum

[CS Bartholomew <jacksonpollock AT earthlink.net>]

> ===== Original Message From Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org> =====
> But would the
> Aramaic first person possessive suffix ever be -i?

J.A. Fitzmyer* thinks so. He notes the use of )L as a divine name in 4Q246
and 1QapGen. He suggests that, even with out a extant example of a first
person possessive,  Mat 27:46 HLI, HLI, LEMA SABACQANI can be read as
"wholly Aramaic."  

Yigal, Ken, Trevor, Peter ... can tell us why J.A. Fitzmyer is wrong.

On 4/20/04 7:15 AM, "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org> wrote:

> Well, the variants on Eli vs. Eloi are not that complex.

Yes, but this is a rather messy text critical problem, Ruben Swanson shows
19 different forms of the Heb/Aram in Mark and Swanson does not even cite
versions like the Syriac. It is messy in a number of different ways and  the
critical commentaries I have consulted just throw up their hands. But NT
text critical problems are discussed elsewhere.

Now back to Aristophanes where I am learning to swear in Attic!

Ma Dio, W Apollo, Nh Poseidon :-)))


greetings,
Clay Bartholomew 
 
*The Dead Sea Scrolls And Christian Origins / Joseph A. Fitzmyer, page 50.

*Essays On The Semitic Background Of The New Testament ; A Wandering Aramean
: Collected Aramaic Essa / Joseph A. Fitzmyer. Book 2, Page 93.