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b-hebrew - RE: [b-hebrew] Mark 15:34, Mat 27:46, & Psalm 22

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  • From: Trevor Peterson <06PETERSON AT cua.edu>
  • To: b-hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] Mark 15:34, Mat 27:46, & Psalm 22
  • Date: Tue, 20 Apr 2004 10:25:34 -0400

>===== Original Message From Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org> =====
>But would the
>Aramaic first person possessive suffix ever be -i?

yes

>And if the same vowel
>shift had occurred, would there not be O's (omicrons) rather than A's
>(alphas) in "lama sabachtani"?

Not all of them, since the shift outside of Phoenician doesn't seem to have
affected short-a. Also, as I said, the contact with Hebrew could have played
a
role. If the shift was in its early stages, the well-known Hebrew form elohim
could have had an influence in speeding the change with this particular word.
I think we also have to question how well Greek writers and/or scribes were
able to render the Aramaic sounds. If the sound was somewhere between /a/ and
/o/, and elohim was already familiar, I would think it much easier to drift
toward the /o/ end in rendering it.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics





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