Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Silberman, Alfred (N-BAE Systems)" <alfred.silberman AT lmco.com>]

> I enjoy seeing how other people translate verses because I find that I
> learn something about other people's perspective on things. Many times I
> am truly amazed by how different people see the same verse in such
> different light.
> 
> I would like to present my perspective on some of the verses cited as
> 'ehyeh being translated as present or past. 
> 
> First of all I need to say that many of the translations into present are
> idiomatically better sounding in the English language than a "future"
> translation. That does not by any means mean that in the culture of Hebrew
> speaking people the meaning is also "present".
> 
> 
> Let me start with II Sam 15:34:
> The question presented was: How would you translate 'ehyeh ebed abiyka
> wa'aniy m"'az in this context?
> 
> Well, checking the accents we find that "'ehyeh" is NOT in the same phrase
> as "ebed abiyka" !!
> 
> The correct parsing, according to Jewish mesorah is - `avdekha 'ani
> hamelekh 'ehyeh. Which very simply means I WILL be you servant. 
> 
> 
> II Sam 16:18:
> Again, the accent parsing according to Jewish mesora has the phrase - lo
> 'ehyeh veitto 'eshev. Translation: I WILL be his (servant) and I will stay
> with him.
> 
> 
> Isaiah 3:7
> > 
> > The one crying out is complaining about his present 
> > circumstances.  Look at the parallel clause: "I have no food in my 
> > house."  This is a negative clause with 'eyn describing a present 
> > situation, as is the previous one lo' 'ehyeh xobe$ "I am not a ruler" 
> > or NIV "I have no remedy."  Are we reading the same texts?
> > 
> The previous verse says that a person is asked to "Please be our leader."
> The answer is simply: No, I WILL not be (a healer and leader). I don't
> even have the things that I personally need (i.e. I have my own
> problems!).
> 
> 
> Psalms 50:21:
> Referent is "you did". Sense of the verse is: If I were to keep quiet, you
> would believe that I would behave as you do.
> 
> 
> Ruth 2:13:
> The reader is expected to know that Ruth eventually becomes part of Boaz'
> household. The subtle statement that she (subconsciously? - her hope?)
> says is: If I were to become part of your household I would not be on a
> par with your maidservant.
> 
> 
> Song of Songs 1:7:
> > Where do you get "should"?  The clause begins with $:lfmfh, 
> > "why."  "Why am I like a veiled woman etc.?"  Again, even using 
> > your translation, we get a present tense, not a future.
> 
> This question I simply do not understand. The very clear implication in
> the verse is that she is asked to adopt a ruse in order to be able to meet
> her lover. Her question is why should I become like a veiled woman in
> order to carry out this ruse. I never was one nor I am I one.!
> 
> There is no hint whatsoever that she ever acted thusly or that she acts
> that way presently.
> 
> 
> Hosea 1:9:
> > "I am not yours"
> This translation is obviously doctrinal. Verse 6 clearly says "I will no
> longer". No suggestion that that is the present situation. This is simply
> a continuation of the same thought - I will no longer be your protector.
> 
> 
> Job 3:16:
> The referent time is the time of birth in verse 11. From that point of
> view the plaint is why will I not at least be like a non-viable baby dying
> before the first month (that is the definition of nefel in the Talmud).
> 
> 
> I could go down the rest of the list but my point is not that the way I
> have presented it is the ONLY way of looking at it but that it is the way
> I have been taught and that is my perspective.
> 
> I don't believe that anyone can say that they know definitely that these
> uses of 'ehyeh were viewed as past or present in the context of the
> culture writing these words.
> 
> 
> Al Silberman
>