Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Liz Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Ian Hutchesson [mailto:mc2499 AT mclink.it]



> The basic assumption is unproven. If Hebrew as a West Semitic language
> emerged say not much earlier than the first confirmed epigraphic evidence,
> then it is improbable that a Moses got the law in Hebrew. If the evidence
> points that way, can you conclude otherwise?
>
Dear Ian,
What does this mean?
Why would a language only emerge  "not much earlier"
than its epigraphic evidence?
Do you mean we wouldn't have evidence for it's emergence much earlier?
or do you mean it actually didn't emerge much earlier?
and if the latter, how would we know that?

Thanks,
Liz