Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Peter Kirk"<peter_kirk AT sil.org>]

More argument from silence, this time of the archaeological record. 
Just because no written records have survived, it does not mean that 
none existed - especially if they were written on perishable 
materials. To confirm that this is plausible, consider how few written 
records from southern Canaan have survived from 10th-8th century. A 
little bad luck and we might have found none. Yet we know that there 
was literacy and a scribal school of some sort - of which very little 
evidence has survived. It would take just one chance find from an 
earlier period to prove that a whole scribal school existed at that 
time also.

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
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Subject: Re: "Post-Exilic"  Genesis (long)
Author:  <nor AT iol.ie> at Internet
Date:    23/01/2000 23:30


In relation to the Evolution of texts and the theory of a Mosaic, or 
contemporary, authorship, what are the opinions about the existence or 
non-existence of a scribal school that had to have existed in order to pass 
on the words of Moses, and to continue the history as the events happened. in 
other words who wrote these texts?  For example 'during David's reign we have 
no sure evidence of either the Egyptian system or of alphabetic writing' (ABD 
vi 1005)  Surely in order to promulgate the texts then a literary tradition 
of schools etc had to have existed and this would imply organized state 
structures.  There appears to be some evidence of schooling in 8th-7th 
century B.C. but this would have been when a semblance of a state existed.  
What about the proceeding 700 years.  Who wrote recorded and added to these 
stories?

It seems logical to think that literacy is tied to state which sees a 
terminus a quo of at least the 8th century for the texts.

Best regards
Noel O Riordan