Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Dave Washburn" <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

> In relation to the Evolution of texts and the theory of a Mosaic, or
> contemporary, authorship, what are the opinions about the existence or
> non-existence of a scribal school that had to have existed in order to pass
> on the words of Moses, and to continue the history as the events happened.
> in other words who wrote these texts?  

"Had to have existed"?  Why?  Why assume that a scribal school 
was the only way such things could have been written down?  This 
seems far too narrow to me.  Why couldn't an individual have 
written them down, just as the text hints?

For example 'during David's reign we
> have no sure evidence of either the Egyptian system or of alphabetic
> writing' (ABD vi 1005)  

Given the existence of Ugaritic, I don't see how this statement can 
be upheld.

Surely in order to promulgate the texts then a
> literary tradition of schools etc had to have existed and this would imply
> organized state structures.  There appears to be some evidence of schooling
> in 8th-7th century B.C. but this would have been when a semblance of a state
> existed.  What about the proceeding 700 years.  Who wrote recorded and added
> to these stories?

In order to promulgate the texts, perhaps such a school was 
needed.  But I see no a priori requirement for such an institution in 
order to write them down in the first place.


Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
Teach me your way, O Lord, and I will walk in your truth;
give me an undivided heart that I may fear your name.
                                   Psalm 86:11