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b-hebrew - Re: Re[4]: Methods in biblical scholarship

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  • From: Ian Hutchesson <mc2499 AT mclink.it>
  • To: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Re[4]: Methods in biblical scholarship
  • Date: Mon, 27 Dec 1999 16:36:04 +0100


>Ian:
>Did Isaiah who was an adult during the time of Ahaz also write about Cyrus??
>
>PK: You are presupposing that predictive prophecy is impossible.

I'm presupposing that a prophecy had a context. Aren't you?

>Was the book of Daniel which partly shows a date of writing around 250 BCE
>and partly around 165 BCE written by the same person??
>
>PK: Same again.

You can't riggle here. The 165 BCE is rather ironclad, unless you want to
argue for a predictive prophecy that is correct about Antiochus IV up to
but not including his death, for at that stage the "prophecy" goes quite
wrong.

>Did David write all 150 psalms, considering at least one can definitively
>be placed at the time of exile or later (By the waters of Babylon...)??
>
>PK: Now you seem to be accepting that David wrote some of them! That
>is progress! ;-) But I will allow that Psalms is a collection of
>separate writings by several authors. It is not presented as a single
>narrative.

I later retracted on this one. The psalms are plainly multiple authorship,
which is what I was arguing anyway.

>Did Moses chronicle his own death in Deuteronomy??
>
>PK: Where does it say in Deuteronomy that Moses wrote any of it? A
>large part of Deuteronomy is speeches by Moses. I do not claim that
>Moses wrote any of this down.

Oh, well, there's another tradition down the drain. The book is full of
information that only Moses could have related. If that is so, how did we
get it?

>As NPL pointed out Samuel died in 1Sam25, so did he also report his own
>death??
>
>PK: Who before NPL has ever claimed that Samuel did write the books of
>Samuel?

So Samuel is another pseudepigraphic work, like Enoch, right?

>We could work out a definitive list of just how many books show multiple
>hands, but these should demonstrate the point.
>
>And not trying to support the widespread use of the DH, have you got a
>better explanation for the doublets and triplets in the literature?
>
>PK: Yes: the hand of a skilled writer who knew how his own language
>worked much better than you or me.

This doesn't seem like a better explanation, just dogma unfortunately. Try
it with Abram and Sarai in Egypt, or Abraham and Sarah in Gerar, or Isaac
and Rebekah in Gerar.

>Plus some cases in which history
>actually came close to repeating itself - that does happen, you know.

I can see you're a gambling man.


Cheers,


Ian





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