Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Niels Peter Lemche <npl AT teol.ku.dk>]

Jim,

what is the modern sense of the word? And the katås gegrapta references in
the NT? You are mainly right, but at least the point made by M. Schulmann,
and by the authors of NT texts is that ancient writings had obtained some
kind of authority. This is by no mean something special to Jewish
literature. Also in Greek and Roman literature references are made to
ancient sources of authority. 

NPL


> -----Original Message-----
> From: Jim West [SMTP:jwest AT Highland.Net]
> Sent: Monday, 27 December, 1999 06:14
> To:   Biblical Hebrew
> Cc:   b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
> Subject:      RE: Re[2]: Methods in biblical scholarship
> 
> At 12:01 AM 12/27/99 +0000, you wrote:
> >
> >
> >Undoubtedly the NT and OT both cite 'non-canonical' literature/sources.
> But
> >explain please how and why this means that they were considered
> scripture.
> 
> You missed the point.  They were NOT considered scripture because there
> was
> no "Scripture" in the modern sense of the word.
> 
> 
> >Paul quotes his opponents, for instance, in 1 Cor, as perhaps does
> Isaiah.
> 
> so?
> 
> >Even approving citations are only evidence that the author of the (now
> >canonical) book accepted the opinion of the writer of the earlier source,
> >not that they were ever considered scriptural in any sense of the word.
> Too
> >much supposition going on here.
> 
> Yes, you have supposed I was saying something that i did not say.
> 
> 
> Jim
> 
> ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
> 
> Jim West, ThD
> jwest AT highland.net
> http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
> 
> 
> 
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