Biblical Hebrew Forum

[peter_kirk AT sil.org]

You misunderstand my argument. I am sure that Josephus' meaning (as 
reasonably accurately reflected in the older translation) was that 
knowledge of Greek was widespread among the Jews, especially the 
despised lower classes. This is the clear evidence for widespread 
bilingualism which you insist is lacking. So if you want to continue 
to argue that bilingualism was very rare, you will have to take up my 
hint, eat the rest of your words here, and reject Josephus as no more 
historical than Ezra!

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
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Subject: Re[7]: Hebrew & Aramaic again (Peter)
Author:  mc2499 AT mclink.it at internet
Date:    19/07/1999 13:51


Dear Peter,

>How do you want to understand "par' hEmin gar ouk ekeinous 
>apodechontai tous pollOn ethnOn dialekton ekmathontas dia to koinon 
>einai nomizein to epitEdeuma touto"? To me it means "for by them those 
>learning the dialect of many nations are not accepted as they consider 
>this pursuit to be common". In this context "common" (KOINOS) implies 
>"vulgar" but the basic meaning of the word is "widespread". The only 
>difference from the English translation I gave earlier is that the 
>"dialect" is not specified as Greek, but surely this must be the 
>meaning.

I have very little knowledge of Greek but when I see that which I vaguely 
understood reflected in your translation, it seems quite different from the 
received translations.

You admit that <<in this context "common" (KOINOS) implies "vulgar">>. Does 
this mean that we can forget the futile argument for Aramaic for a while?

<snip>