Biblical Hebrew Forum

[peter_kirk AT sil.org]

I am not conceding any issues to you, but as I don't know enough about 
1 Esdras to continue that part of the thread (which was never my main 
interest) and as you are now disavowing interest in bilingualism, I 
suggest we stop talking past one another.

Peter


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: Re: Re[12!]: Hebrew & Aramaic again (Peter)
Author:  mc2499 AT mclink.it at internet
Date:    22/07/1999 16:18


Dear Peter,

I gather you will agree that you have sufficiently changed the topic away 
from a discussion on 1 Esdras/Ezra/Josephus to whatever you can that it 
makes it irrelevant what we were initially talking about.

You can manipulate Josephus as much as you like to invent a widespread 
common bilingualism, which of course has almost nothing to do with the 
original topic, nor the discussion on Henry's proposition regarding 
Aramaic/Hebrew bilingualism. You are talking alone for some reason about 
Greek/Hebrew bilingualism that has nothing to do with much at all. But more 
to come on this.

>I don't know why you responded to my posting about bilingualism with a 
>lengthy and repetitive attack on the historicity of Ezra, which was 
>not at all my point here.

Oh, I know, I know.

>It was merely a point of comparison. I am
>trying to make one point and one point only, which is about 
>bilingualism.

You have not made it. You are still at the stage of text manipulation: 
trying to assume the significance of "dialect of many nations".

>Josephus gives clear evidence of bilingualism, in that many people had 
>learned the "language of many nations" (not "dialects", "dialekton" is 
>surely singular, and means "language" rather than "dialect") and so 
>were bilingual. If the distinction he makes is not a class 
>distinction, what is it?

First, *his nation* discourages the learning of languages. You see fit to 
make that mean something else.

He is making a separation between that which interests the Jews and that 
which interests the rest.

You seem to forget that Josephus is writing in Rome, where it was common 
for slaves to know other languages: they were purchased because of their 
talents. To clarify the Jewish position, he gives examples that are easily 
understandable to his Roman audience as to why the Jews discourage learning 
other languages. The Jews favour learning the torah.

>I didn't start the thread on bilingualism, perhaps Henry did. If you 
>are not interested in this, why have you been posting again and again 
>about it?

Waiting for you to make whatever the connection was so as to return to the 
centre of the initial discussion. The problem was you continued to say 
things that were not supported by the text.

My aim was to talk about Josephus's use of 1 Esdras. I gather you will 
concede the issue as you have nothing more to say on the subject.

You have made the point that you were not returning to the conversation.

So, the floor is all yours.


Cheers,


Ian


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