Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ian Hutchesson <mc2499 AT mclink.it>]

At 23.58 20/07/99 -0400, peter_kirk AT sil.org wrote:
>You misunderstand my argument. I am sure that Josephus' meaning (as 
>reasonably accurately reflected in the older translation) was that 
>knowledge of Greek was widespread among the Jews, especially the 
>despised lower classes. This is the clear evidence for widespread 
>bilingualism which you insist is lacking. 

You misunderstand Josephus's argument. He is arguing against a wide
knowledge of other languages in the Hebrew society. That's why his Greek
isn't as good as he'd like it to be. His people aren't interested in such
common things. There is no indication of bilingualism in the statement.
You're cooking the book. But please try to paraphrase Josephus's logic
regarding his own abilities in Greek: what is the connection between his
own inability to pronounce Greek and the argument that follows that is
supposed to put his inability in a context?

>So if you want to continue 
>to argue that bilingualism was very rare, you will have to take up my 
>hint, eat the rest of your words here, and reject Josephus as no more 
>historical than Ezra!

This is doesn't have much sense to me. You abuse one passage of Josephus
and then write the above!


Cheers,


Ian