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  • From: "Edgar M. Krentz" <ekrentz AT sbcglobal.net>
  • To: Corpus-Paul <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Did Luke know Paul's letters?
  • Date: Sat, 26 Jul 2003 21:33:58 -0500

[Dr Krentz, on Luke 22:19b-20, following Fitzmyer:]

it is the only passage in Luke that interperts the death
of Jesus positively... Acts 2 interprets Jesus' death as
an evil to be set right by the resurrection.

Right. It is fascinating that Luke repeatedly has Jesus
speaking of the inevitability of his death, but not that
salvation will emanate from that event.

Now on my remark that Acts 20:28 sounded Pauline, and
your reply that "Paul does not seem to have any interest
in the blood of Jesus," I would have to respectfully
disagree. You go on to mention four chapters in which
the theme occurs (1 Cor 10; 11; 15; Rom 3[:25]), but we
also have Rom 5:9 ("having been justified by his blood"),
the sacrificial references in 1 Cor 5:7 and Rom 8:3
(PERI HAMARTIAS), participation in the death (Rom 6
and 7), scapegoat references in 2 Cor 5:21; Gal 3:13,
and "the blood of his cross" in Col 1:20, which is
certainly very close to Paul (perhaps from Paul and
Timothy, as 1:1 claims).

But Paul is in each case citing traditions. Rom 5:9 is an Old Testament citation. Rom 3:25, 1 Cor 10, 11, 15 each cite a tradition. When Paul interprets the tradition he makes no use of the blood or sacrificial imagery. read each text in context. Paul uses the paschal reference in 1 Cor 5:7 to argue for his recommendation about the incestuaous man, not to say anything about the significance of Jesus' death. 1 Cor 5:21 refers to substitutionary death, not to sacrificial death. And redemption in Gal 3:13 uses the language of manumission,n ot of sacrifice. Col. 1:20 is deutero-Pauline, in spite of Jimmy Dunn's attempt to argue for Pauline authorship. Hence it is evidence for a later interpretation of Paul, not Paul himself.

So I am not persuaded by these references.

You are right that the actual word "blood" does not
occur often, but the centrality of the death begs for
an interpretive context, either martyrdom or sacrifice,
or both (then there is also scapegoat...).

And my point is that sacrificial language is rare in Paul.

And of course, you are correct that Paul does not use
the word "forgiveness," as Matthew does, but he seems
to be interested in the concept, he just demands that
you hear him out and not jump to forgiveness before you
have heard his soteriology and typology.

No way. Paul uses HAMARTIA about 60 times. It is a power that holds men in slavery, as Romans 6 holds, belongs with death and the law as the unholy trinity from which one must be liberated, as Romans 8:2 holds

The mention of purchase in Acts 20:28 reminds me of "you have been
bought with a price" in 1 Cor 6:20; 7:23, and of
redemption (APOLYTRWSIS) in Rom 3:24.

Once again, manumission language, change of Lordship.

So I see more than one swallow here, but then, I have
a vested interest in seeing them, since I am writing
my dissertation on this subject!

Thanks,
Stephen Finlan
University of Durham
______________________________________________

I don't expect that these comments will persuade you; but if I were on your dissertation committee, I would really be pushing you for more substantial evidence than the above. and you may indeed be able to provide it. So have at it--and refute the above suggestions.

Ed Krentz

--
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Edgar Krentz Professor Emeritus of New Testament Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 East 55th Street
Chicago, IL 60615
Telephone: (773) 256-0773 Home Tel: 773-947-8105
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GERASKO D' AEI POLLA DIDASKOMENOS.
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