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  • From: "Billy LeJeune" <billyl AT wcs.edu>
  • To: "Corpus-paul" <corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: the role of the law in salvation-history
  • Date: Mon, 1 Oct 2001 07:38:53 -0500


Against a framework of covenant, I equate sin with curse. Disobeying the
law consigned Israel to its own specific curse (which eventually became
the exile,) according to the terms of the Mosaic covenant as explained
in Gal. 3:10. Am I wrong in equating "consigned to sin" and "reaping the
curse santions of the covenant?" Thanks very much for your reply.

Amateur Biblical Exegete
Billy LeJeune

-----Original Message-----
From: Loren Rosson [mailto:rossoiii AT yahoo.com]
Sent: Monday, October 01, 2001 6:33 AM
To: Corpus-paul
Subject: [corpus-paul] Re: the role of the law in salvation-history


Billy Jejune wrote:

>What about NT Wright's take that the law was
>given for the purpose of exposing and locating
>and piling up sin in a place where it could be
>dealt with once and for all. In his view the
>tension seems to me to be resolved. The law
>doesn't consign the humanity to sin; the world is
>already consigned to sin. It consigns Israel to
>sin which is representative of humanity,

Thanks for bringing up Wright. But the problem is
still there: How does the law (of all things) consign
Israel to sin?

I appreciate Wright's view of collective atonement
(sin dealt with once and for all) vs. individual
atonement (sin dealt with periodically and/or
phenomenologically). But the dilemma of the law's
**purpose** is not resolved through this distinction
-- unless I'm missing something obvious.

Loren Rosson III
Nashua NH
rossoiii AT yahoo.com

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