Biblical Hebrew Forum

[jimstinehart AT aol.com]

Pere Porta:
1.  You wrote:  “Remark: every girl in this world is a "daughter of a man"; 
there is no exception! That's why you assumption makes no sense (to my mind).”
I see your Western logic.  But is that the way Hebrew grammar works?
2.  You wrote:  “[L]ook at every context where the word dealt with is 
inserted and it will tell you the answer.”
The word KN(NY, or in one case the feminine form of that word, appears 9 
times in the Patriarchal narratives.  But in only two cases, at Genesis 34: 
30 and here at Genesis 38: 2, is the definite article he/H absent.  Do you 
see the presence or absence of the definite article as being important?  
KN(NY at Genesis 34: 30 is a noun with a plural meaning, whereas at Genesis 
38: 2, KN(NY is singular in meaning, and either is an adjective or, if an 
appositional phrase is seen, a noun.  But does the absence of the definite 
article preclude an analysis that KN(NY is a noun with a singular meaning, 
thereby requiring Genesis 38: 2 to be viewed as being an adjectival phrase?  
Or does it all depend on context?
To phrase the question differently, we famously see H-KN(NY at both Genesis 
12: 6 and 13: 7, being 2 of the 7 cases where the definite article is 
present.  Out of context, is there a very strong presumption that the meaning 
there is plural, or, rather, does the question of whether that phrase is 
singular or plural in meaning in those two verses rely almost entirely on the 
individual context, that is, on how one interprets those two verses overall?
Jim