Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Kenneth,

1. In a general way, Infinitives that come immediately after a verb have
preposition 'l' (lamed) preceding them.
And so, we find 549 cases thereof in the Bible: beginning in Gn 3:24 and
ending in Zec 14:19.
True that we find 96 cases where no preposition lamed precedes the
infinitive.
But the common way is with preposition "lamed".
It is true that verb "shiqets", detest, has no Infinitive following it in
the biblical text. But the usual pattern for "verb + infinitive"  is "verb +
l (lamed) + infinitive".
So it is logical that in our verse it will be the same thing. Namely: if it
meant "to answer" we would find "la'anot".

2. "enut" is here a feminine noun and NOT a verb. The fact that this noun is
used once in the Bible does not imply that it does not exist (as a noun).
Pattern [two root consonants + ut] for a (feminine) noun is found here and
there in the Bible:

-"dmut", image, form (Is 40:18)
-"edut", testimony (Ps 60:2)
-"galut", exile (Is 20:4)

and so, "enut", affliction (Ps 22:25)

Also we find, to reinforce this, the pattern [three root consonants +
ut] again for feminine nouns:

-"siklut", stupidity (Ec 10:13)
-"malkut", royalty (1Ch 29:25)

And today Israeli Hebrew uses this pattern widely: dozens and dozens of
nouns are shaped fitting it.

Does all this make an answer to your question?

Kind regards from

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)



2011/4/11 kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com>

> Pere,
>
> Are you sure Psalm 22:25 can't say "You did not hate answering an afflicted
> one" instead of "You did not hate *to* answer an afflicted one"? Genesis
> 45:3 uses the verb "to be able" yud kaf lamed which might need the word "to"
> after it before infinitives. Maybe you don't need "to" before the infinitive
> of the verb "to answer." Do you always need "to" in front of infinitives?
>
> How do you know there is a noun "affliction" spelled ayin nun vav tav if it
> is only used once in Psalm 22:25? There is a word spelled ayin nun vav hay
> that is translated "humility" in Proverbs 15:33 and Proverbs 18:12. Also,
> Psalm 18:36 and 2 Samuel 22:36 have the word translated "humility", but I
> think it might say "Your answering (or Your humility) made me great" because
> in Psalm 18:4 and 18:7 it says David called on G-d to help him, so maybe G-d
> answered him.
>
> Kenneth Greifer
>  ------------------------------
> Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 07:13:21 +0200
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Psalm 22 answering quotes
> From: pporta7 AT gmail.com
> To: greifer AT hotmail.com
> CC: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
>
>
> Kenneth,
>
> the last word in Ps 22:22 means "You answered me" and not "answer me!".
> In Jb 10:9 we have the parallel "asitani", you made me.
> In my opinion there is no reason to translate 'anitani' for an Imperative.
> Now, in Ps 22:25 'enut" is a noun (affliction) and not a verb (to answer).
> The usual way to mean "You did not detest answering an afflicted one" is
> using the Infinitive 'la'anot' ------- look at Gn 45:3.
>
> Heartly,
>
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
>
> 2011/4/10 kenneth greifer <greifer AT hotmail.com>
>
>
> Psalm 22:22 seems to say "...You answered me", but most translations say
> "answer me" with the command form. Psalm 22:25 says "You did not hate the
> affliction (afflicting?) an afflicted one", but it could say "You did not
> hate answering an afflicted one". It sounds like G-d answered the cry of the
> person in the from Psalm 22:2-3, but the translations make it sound like he
> was not answered. Am I misunderstanding the psalm?
>
> Kenneth Greifer
>
> "Real intellectuals can discuss any subject, but pseudo-intellectual snobs
> only discuss things they agree with." (I noticed many b-hebrew members have
> little sayings under their names, so I came up with this one. I wonder if
> that is allowed or do you have to quote someone else?)
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>
>
>
> --
> Pere Porta
>
>


-- 
Pere Porta